What is the main respiratory muscle?

Anatomy/Physiology of Respiratory, Urinary System, Fluid and Electrolytes
1. The pharynx is common to what 2 systems?
2. What is the voice box? Of what is it composed? What is the Adam’s apple?
3. Describe the structure and function of the trachea.
4. Describe respiratory physiology.
5. What is the main respiratory muscle?
6. List the principal and accessory organs of the urinary system.
7. Diagram the flow of blood through the kidney.
8. How does total body water content differ in men and women?
9. List the compartments of extracellular fluid.
10. How is urine volume regulated?

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Identify causal factors that increase mortality in cancer of the breast patients

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What type of leadership style do feel is ideal for nursing environments?

Reflect on learning and professional growth during nursing school.

Reflective paper: PURPOSE: Reflect on learning and professional growth. DIRECTIONS: Write a one to two page reflective paper using APA style. Reflect on and explain how your participation in this course contributed to your achievement of the freshman level program outcome for leadership/interdisciplinary teamwork (Please see the leadership/interdisciplinary freshmen level outcome below: LEADERSHIP / INTERDISCIPLINARY TEAMWORK      Freshman Sophomore Junior Senior/BS Outcome   Develop beginning leadership skills for the delivery of safe and effective care. Prioritize the delivery of safe and effective care for patients with various levels of healthcare needs. Demonstrate beginning leadership skills as a team member in the delivery of safe and effective patient care. Collaborate with the interdisciplinary team in the delivery of patient-centered care in complex healthcare environments.     The goal for this paper will be for you to develop beginning leadership skills for the delivery of safe and effective care. Please respond to the questions below when writing your reflective paper: • What does this level outcome for leadership/interdisciplinary teamwork mean? • What knowledge or skills did you gain from this course and how does that knowledge/skill relate to the level outcome? • What assignments, activities, or experiences helped you achieve the level outcome? • What type of leadership style did you observe in your clinical settings? • What type of leadership style do feel is ideal for nursing environments? This assignment is pass or fail. Please see the rubric below for guidance as you write your paper. You must complete the assignment in order to pass the course. DUE DATE: April 30, 2016  Reflection Essay Rubric  Criteria  Expectation  Satisfactory or Unsatisfactory   Comments  Reflects on personal and professional growth. • Explains how the course has shaped personal knowledge, skills, and/or attitudes, especially those related to nursing. Correlates course activities with the level objective. • Identifies specific learning experiences, activities, and/or assignments from the course that relate to the level objective. • Explains how these experiences, activities, and/or assignments relate to the level objective.   Demonstrates achievement of the level objective. • Explains how personal knowledge, skills, and/or attitudes developed through the course demonstrate that he or she has achieved the level objective. • Provides examples of individual performance(s) in the course which validate that he or she exhibits the behaviors defined in the level objective. 

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Review of report and Identification of two major issues and the implications for practice

Review of report and Identification of two major issues and the implications for practice

Need a review of a report and identification of two major issues and discuss the implications for practice of APN.
See Detailed Instructions.
Discussion Question 1

Since the Institute of Medicine (IOM) report, there have been many opportunities to look at quality and errors within health care. Health Grades is an organized system devoted to looking at some of this data.

Look at their most current report and review the content. Identify at least two major issues described in the report and discuss the implications to the Advanced Practice Nurse.

Here is the link to see the report

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BIOL QUIZ (SOLVED-100% Correct answers)

Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the
A) phagocytic response.
B) adaptive defense.
C) immune response.
D) lymphocytic response.
E) inflammation of tissues.

The primary function of the lymphatic system is
A) circulation of nutrients.
B) the transport of hormones.
C) defending the body against both environmental hazards and internal threats.
D) the production and distribution of plasma proteins.
E) circulation of dissolved gases.

The lymphatic system does all of the following, except
that it
A) helps maintain normal blood volume.
B) transports gases to and away from lymph nodes.
C) eliminates variations in the composition of interstitial fluid.
D) transports lipids from the digestive tract.
E) fights infection.

The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following, except
A) lymphatic vessels.
B) the venae cavae.
C) the spleen.
D) lymph nodes.
E) lymph.

Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following, except that they
A) have no basement membrane.
B) are larger in diameter.
C) have walls of endothelial cells that overlap like shingles.
D) are smaller in diameter.
E) are frequently irregular in shape.

Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they
A) produce antibodies.
B) monitor the contents of lymph.
C) remove debris and pathogens from the lymph.
D) accumulate cancer cells.
E) remove excess nutrients from the lymph.

All of the following are true of the thymus gland, except
that it
A) activates B cells.
B) reaches its greatest relative size during the second year of life.
C) involutes after puberty.
D) produces T cells.
E) lies in the anterior mediastinum.

In general, lymphocytes
A) spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue.
B) have relatively short life spans.
C) have two nuclei.
D) are produced and mature only in red bone marrow.
E) spend most of their time circulating in the blood.

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the
A) right lymphatic duct.
B) thoracic duct.
C) cisterna chyli.
D) hepatic portal vein.
E) dural sinus.

The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions, except the
A) left breast.
B) right breast.
C) left arm and shoulder.
D) pelvic viscera.
E) left side of neck.

The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T

The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.
A) NK
B) B
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T

The medullary cords of a lymph node contain ________ lymphocytes and plasma cells.
A) cytotoxic T
B) medullary
C) NK
D) B
E) cordal

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) suppressor T

Lymphocytes
A) are actively phagocytic.
B) destroy red blood cells.
C) respond to antigens.
D) are primarily found in red bone marrow.
E) decrease in number during infection.
C) respond to antigens.

Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs?
A) tonsils
B) spleen
C) lymph nodes
D) thymus
E) All of the answers are correct.

________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.
A) Tonsils
B) Peyer patches
C) Lymph nodes
D) Immune complexes
E) Spleens

________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine.
A) Tonsils
B) Adenoids
C) Peyer patches
D) Immune complexes
E) Lymph glands

The term lymphadenopathy refers to
A) a congenital lack of lymph nodes.
B) a chronic or excessive enlargement of lymph nodes.
C) accumulations of lymph in the tissue space.
D) the lack of lymphocytes in peripheral circulation.
E) increased numbers of circulating lymphocytes.

The cells responsible for the production of circulating immunoglobulins are ________ cells.
A) NK
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) thymus
E) liver

Stem cells that will form B cells or NK cells are found only in the
A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.

Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as
A) Peyer patches.
B) adenoids.
C) white pulp.
D) red pulp.
E) lymph nodes.

Which class of leukocytes is particularly abundant in the red pulp of the spleen?
A) T lymphocytes.
B) free and fixed macrophages.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) neutrophils.
E) red blood cells.

Lymphatic organs differ from lymphatic tissues in what way?
A) They contain T lymphocytes and lymphatic tissues do not.
B) They are found in the digestive tract and lymphatic tissues are found in the thorax.
C) They are surrounded by a fibrous capsule and lymphatic tissues are not.
D) They cannot produce antibodies, whereas lymphatic tissues can.
E) They occur throughout the body except in the head.

The white pulp of the spleen is populated by
A) lymphocytes.
B) trabeculae.
C) arteries.
D) veins.
E) fibrous connective tissue.

Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except
A) the thymus.
B) lymphatic nodules.
C) lymph node organs.
D) the spleen.
E) the brain.

Lymphatic capillaries are known for
A) being the starting point of the lymphatic circulation.
B) being the smallest lymphatic vessels.
C) having larger diameters and looser walls than blood capillaries.
D) shingle-like endothelial cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Lymphatic vessels commonly occur in association with
A) hyaline cartilage.
B) blood vessels.
C) adipose tissue.
D) sensory nerve endings.
E) both blood vessels and adipose tissue.

The merging of ________ forms the right lymphatic duct.
A) the right jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
B) the left jugular, right subclavian, and right bronchomediastinal trunks
C) two great vessels
D) the thoracic and mediastinal ducts
E) superior and inferior lymphatic ducts

T is to ________ as B is to ________.
A) top; bottom
B) thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived
C) thyroid; bowel
D) non-thymus-dependent; bottom
E) trabeculae; bursa

Lymphocyte production involves
A) bone marrow.
B) thymus tissue.
C) peripheral lymphatic tissues.
D) stem cells.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule.
A) sinus
B) germinal center
C) cortex
D) capsule
E) stromba

Lymph nodes range in diameter from
A) 1 nm to 10 nm.
B) 1 inch to 2 inches.
C) 1 mm to 25 mm.
D) 1 cm to 25 cm.
E) 1 cm to 1 inch.

Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except the
A) CNS.
B) periphery.
C) renal arteries.
D) groin.
E) throat.

Which of these statements about lymph flow in a node is false?
A) Lymph enters in an afferent lymphatic.
B) Lymph first enters the subcapsular space.
C) Lymph flows past dendritic cells.
D) The efferent lymphatic exits at the hilum.
E) The afferent lymphatics enters at the hilum.

Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the
A) circulation.
B) thymus.
C) red marrow.
D) spleen.
E) yellow marrow.

Lymphatic tissue is found in the greatest quantity in
A) the adult spleen.
B) the adult thymus.
C) bone marrow.
D) the tonsils.
E) Peyer patches.

If the thymus shrank and stopped making thymosins, we would expect to see an immediate decrease in the number of
A) B lymphocytes.
B) NK cells.
C) T cells.
D) neutrophils.
E) red blood cells.

The cell that dominates the deep cortical region of a lymph node is the ________ cell.
A) B
B) T
C) plasma
D) nodule
E) NK

Innate defenses include
A) phagocytic cells.
B) physical barriers.
C) inflammation.
D) interferons.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include
A) sebaceous glands.
B) mucus.
C) epithelia.
D) epidermal layers.
E) All of the answers are correct.

The body’s innate defenses include all of the following, except
A) the skin.
B) complement.
C) interferon.
D) inflammation.
E) antibodies.

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except
A) body hair.
B) epithelium.
C) secretions.
D)complement.
E) basement membranes.

An inflammatory response is triggered when
A) red blood cells release pyrogens.
B) T cells release interferon.
C) mast cells release histamine and heparin.
D) neutrophils phagocytize bacteria.
E) blood flow to an area increases.

The release of endogenous pyrogen (or interleukin-1) by active macrophages would
A) cause inflammation.
B) produce a fever.
C) activate complement.
D) opsonize pathogens.
E) activate antibodies.

Microphages include
A) monocytes.
B) Kupffer cells.
C) neutrophils.
D) eosinophils.
E) both neutrophils and eosinophils.

Various types of macrophages are derived from
A) lymphocytes.
B) monocytes.
C) neutrophils.
D) eosinophils.
E) basophils.

Plasma contains ________ special complement proteins that form the complement system.
A) 3
B) 5
C) 7
D) 9
E) 11

Inflammation produces localized
A) swelling.
B) redness.
C) heat.
D) pain.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Histamine increases blood flow and vascular permeability. This would account for all of the following changes that occur during inflammation, except
A) redness of the inflamed tissue.
B) chemotaxis of phagocytes.
C) heat of the inflamed tissue.
D) movement of defense proteins and cells into the interstitial space.
E) swelling of the inflamed tissue.

Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than
A) 105°F.
B) 99°F.
C) 98.6°F.
D) 102°F.
E) 99.5°F.

Leslie has a bad sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that
A) the focus of the infection is the lymph nodes.
B) lymph is not flowing through these lymph nodes.
C) the affected lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes.
D) the lymph node is actively producing phagocytes.
E) the lymph node has increased its secretion of thymosin.

A sample of John’s blood shows a high level of pyrogens. This would indicate that John
A) is feeling achy.
B) is producing T lymphocytes.
C) has a sore throat.
D) is running a fever.
E) has swollen lymph nodes.

The effects of activating the complement system include all of the following, except
A) destruction of target cell plasma membranes.
B) stimulation of inflammation.
C) inhibition of the immune response.
D) opsonization.
E) chemotaxis.

The classic pathway of complement activation begins when the protein C1 binds to
A) the cell wall of bacteria.
B) the plasma membrane of bacteria.
C) an antibody attached to an antigen.
D) a cell surface antigen.
E) a plasma protein.

Immunity that is genetically determined and present at birth is called ________ immunity.
A) active
B) natural passive
C) passive
D) auto
E) innate

The cells that perform immunological surveillance are the ________ cells.
A) NK
B) plasma
C) B
D) helper T
E) suppressor T

Cytotoxic T cells can attack target cells with which of these chemical weapons?
A) secrete strong acid
B) secrete organic solvent
C) secrete free radicals
D) secrete a cytokine that triggers apoptosis
E) secrete mutant proteins

Adaptive defenses depend on the activities of
A) monocytes.
B) leukocytes.
C) agranulocytes.
D) erythrocytes.
E) lymphocytes.

Characteristics of adaptive defenses include
A) versatility.
B) tolerance.
C) memory.
D) specificity.
E) All of the answers are correct.

Defense of the body against a particular pathogen is provided by
A) innate immunity.
B) adaptive immunity.
C) immunological surveillance.
D) skin defenses.
E) fever.

The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the
A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) NK cells.
D) phagocytes.
E) plasma cells.

Immunity that results from exposure to an antigen in the environment is called ________ immunity.
A) naturally acquired active
B) natural passive
C) passive
D) auto
E) innate

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass through the placenta from mother to fetus is called ________ immunity.
A) active
B) naturally acquired passive
C) passive
D) auto
E) innate

In passive immunization, the
A) immune system attacks normal body cells.
B) body is deliberately exposed to an antigen.
C) body receives antibodies produced by other humans.
D) body receives antibodies produced by an animal.
E) body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal.

During a primary humoral response to antigens all of the following occur, except
A) B cells may differentiate into plasma cells immediately.
B) B cells may undergo several rounds of mitosis before producing plasma cells and memory cells.
C) antibody levels do not peak until 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.
D) neutrophils invade the surrounding areas, releasing chemotactic substances.
E) the first immunoglobulins to appear in circulation are of the IgM type.

In an experimental situation, a rabbit is exposed to a viral antigen to which it makes antibodies. These antibodies are then purified and injected into a human with the same viral disease. This is an example of
A) innate immunity.
B) active immunization.
C) passive immunization.
D) natural immunity.
E) alloimmunity.

All of the following are true of the secondary response of humoral immunity, except that it
A) depends on memory B cells.
B) results in much higher antibody titers than in the primary response.
C) results in much quicker rise in antibody titers.
D) produces more effective antibodies.
E) weakens quickly because memory B cells only survive for a year or two.

All of the following are true of the primary response of humoral immunity, except that
A) it depends on antigen triggering the appropriate B cell.
B) it requires B cell differentiation into plasma cells.
C) it is delayed by the memory cell stage.
D) circulating antibodies undergo a gradual, sustained rise.
E) it peaks 1 to 2 weeks after the initial exposure.

Hormones of the immune system include all of the following, except
A) interleukins.
B) interferons.
C) natriuretic factor.
D) thymosins.
E) tumor necrosis factor.

Interleukins do all of the following, except
A) increase T-cell sensitivity to antigens exposed on macrophage membranes.
B) stimulate B-cell activity, plasma cell formation, and antibody production.
C) stimulate inflammation.
D) elevate body temperature.
E) stimulate collagen synthesis.

Cells that help regulate the immune response are ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) NK

Suppressor T cells act to
A) suppress antigens.
B) erase memory T cells.
C) limit antigen proliferation.
D) inhibit T and B cell activities.
E) produce antibodies involved in autoimmunity.

Which of the following statements about MHC proteins is not true?
A) bind complement
B) allow the body to differentiate its own cells from foreign cells
C) function in antigen presentation
D) fall into two major classes
E) are found on all nucleated cells

When an antigen is bound to a Class I MHC molecule, it can stimulate a ________ cell.
A) B
B) plasma
C) helper T
D) cytotoxic T
E) NK

Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?
A) all body cells with a nucleus
B) red blood cells
C) granulocytes and microphages
D) lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells
E) liver cells and macrophages in the spleen

When an antigen is bound to a Class II MHC protein, it can activate a ________ cell.
A) plasma
B) helper T
C) NK
D) suppressor T
E) cytotoxic T

Helper T cells do all of the following, except
A) trigger B-cell division, plasma cell maturation, and antibody production.
B) provide a rapid response to a future exposure to the antigen.
C) enhance production of memory and cytotoxic T cells.
D) attract macrophages to the affected area.
E) enhance nonspecific defenses.

Stem cells that will form T cells develop in the
A) bone marrow.
B) liver.
C) spleen.
D) thymus.
E) kidneys.

T cells and B cells can be activated only by
A) pathogens.
B) interleukins, interferons, and colony-stimulating factors.
C) cells infected with viruses, bacteria, or cancer cells. a
D) exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.
E) disease-causing agents.

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only
A) when plasma cells are releasing antibodies.
B) in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.
C) when cytotoxic T cells are inhibited.
D) when NK cells are activated.
E) during infections.

If the disulfide bonds in IgG were broken, how many protein chains would be set free?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) dozens

The various classes of immunoglobulins are differentiated on the basis of their
A) asymmetry.
B) antigen specificity.
C) light-chain variable segments.
D) heavy-chain constant segments.
E) reactivity.

Immunoglobulins that are most abundant and are responsible for resistance against many viruses, bacteria, and bacterial toxins are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Immunoglobulins that attach to and sensitize mast cells and basophils are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Immunoglobulins that are found on the surface of B cells and may activate antibody production are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Immunoglobulins, formed of five subunits, that are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection, are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions such as saliva and tears are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

The binding of an antibody to an antigen can result in
A) neutralization of the antigen.
B) agglutination or precipitation.
C) complement activation and opsonization.
D) inflammation.
E) All of the answers are correct.

In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen, the antigen must
A) be phagocytized by the lymphocyte.
B) enter the cytoplasm of the lymphocyte.
C) bind to the DNA of the lymphocyte.
D) bind to specific receptors on the lymphocyte surface.
E) depolarize the lymphocyte.

The role of antigen-presenting cells in immunity is to
A) activate T cells.
B) display antigen fragments.
C) process antigens.
D) bind antigens to glycoproteins.
E) All of the answers are correct.

B cells are primarily activated by the activities of
A) antigens.
B) antibodies.
C) helper T cells.
D) macrophages.
E) plasma cells.

In IgG, the antigen binding site is formed by
A) the variable segment of the light chain.
B) the variable segment of the heavy chain.
C) the constant segment of the heavy chain.
D) the variable segments of both the light and heavy chains.
E) the ionized segment of the light chain and the isotropic segment of the heavy chain.

________ is the class of antibody first secreted in response to a new antigen.
A) IgG
B) IgE
C) IgD
D) IgM
E) IgA

Which of these is not a property of an IgG heavy chain?
A) has one constant segment
B) has one variable segment
C) binds one light chain
D) binds antigen at both ends
E) binds complement in the constant region

Each IgG has ________ binding sites for attachment to antigenic determinants.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) up to 8
E) as many as a 1000

During a primary immune response, the
A) IgM titer is initially higher than the IgG titer.
B) IgG titer is initially higher than the IgM titer.
C) IgM titer and the IgG titer rise in parallel.

In a routine examination, some blood is taken and analyzed. The results show a high IgM titer for the mumps virus but a low IgG anti-mumps titer. This would indicate the person
A) has just recovered from mumps.
B) was recently infected with mumps.
C) is allergic to mumps.
D) is immune to mumps.
E) is relying on passive immunity.

A crime scene investigator found that a biological fluid sample contains a large amount of IgA-type antibody. This fluid is probably
A) blood.
B) lymph.
C) serum.
D) tears.
E) interstitial.

Newborns gain their immunity initially from
A) early immunizations.
B) contact with viruses and bacteria.
C) antibodies passed across the placenta from the mother.
D) contact with siblings.
E) breast milk.

The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are
A) IgA.
B) IgD.
C) IgE.
D) IgG.
E) IgM.

Autoantibodies are
A) produced by activated T cells.
B) produced during an allergic reaction.
C) directed against the body’s own antigens.
D) the first step in immunological competence.
E) important in tissue rejection reactions.

Inappropriate or excessive immune responses to antigens are
A) immunodeficiency diseases.
B) autoimmune diseases.
C) allergies.
D) the result of stress.
E) signs of a weak system.

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells.
A) B
B) plasma
C) cytotoxic T
D) helper T
E) suppressor T

Infection with the HIV virus occurs through
A) eating contaminated food.
B) airborne droplets from coughs and sneezes.
C) intimate contact with an infected person’s body fluids.
D) casual contact with an infected individual.
E) sharing clothes with an infected individual.

Which of these is not a characteristic of AIDS?
A) has killed at least 1/2 million people in the United States
B) is spread most often through sexual contact
C) attacks the T helper (CD4) cells
D) is declining worldwide
E) almost always eventually fatal

Milly has just received a kidney transplant and is taking cyclosporin A. What does this medication do?
A) prevents inflammation from destroying the transplanted kidney
B) depresses hematopoiesis
C) decreases chemotaxis of macrophages to the transplanted kidney
D) weakens antibodies in the blood
E) suppresses helper T cells, thus preventing rejection

Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways, except by
A) inhibiting glucocorticoid release.
B) depressing the inflammatory response.
C) reducing the number of phagocytes.
D) inhibiting interleukin secretion.
E) increasing the level of glucocorticoids.

Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include
A) T cells becoming less responsive to antigens.
B) fewer cytotoxic T cells responding to infections.
C) decreased numbers of T helper cells.
D) B cells less responsive.
E) All of the answers are correct.

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What cultural considerations are important for you to remember while you interview Ms. Li?

Using the patient information provided, respond to the following questions: (a) What cultural considerations are important for you to remember while you interview Ms. Li? (b) What is the Abuse Assessment screen? (c) If abuse is discovered, what should you do?

Patient Information:

Patient: Sue Li

Age: 20

Ethnicity: Asian American

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What conditions need to be in place for teams to excel and why?

1.Your state has a forthcoming referendum concerning no smoking in public places including bars and restaurants.

2. Understanding the Flow of Negotiations: Stages and Phases
A.  The typical steps or flow in a negotiation can be found in the phase models of negotiation:
1.   Initiation.
2.   Problem solving.
3.   Resolution.
Defines these three phases and give a thorough example of each.

3.Discuss how to access team productivity:
What conditions need to be in place for teams to excel and why?
Suggestion ways to design teamwork so that threats to performance is minimized
As a manager, how would you reward teamwork?

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